Hi, Sorry I know this has been asked in 100s of different iterations, but none-the less…..
If I want to travel from York to London on day 1, stay overnight, then get the eurostar from London to Paris on day 2 (the next morning). Is this classed as 2 days of travel in country of residence or 1?
Thanks in advance
edit - to clarify, I am later returning on the eurostar to London, then onward to york (this time in a single day). So i want to check if i am using more travel than allowed in the country of residence.
Best answer by rvdborgtView original